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NEW QUESTION # 26
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
- A. BPA
- B. SLA
- C. NDA
- D. SOW
Answer: D
Explanation:
A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement (BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are different types of contracts that may be related to a penetration testing project, but they do not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement.
NEW QUESTION # 27
While troubleshooting a firewall configuration, a technician determines that a "deny any" policy should be added to the bottom of the ACL. The technician updates the policy, but the new policy causes several company servers to become unreachable.
Which of the following actions would prevent this issue?
- A. Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any* policy prior to enabling the new policy
- B. Testing the policy in a non-production environment before enabling the policy in the production network
- C. Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management
- D. Including an 'allow any1 policy above the 'deny any* policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
A firewall policy is a set of rules that defines what traffic is allowed or denied on a network. A firewall policy should be carefully designed and tested before being implemented, as a misconfigured policy can cause network disruptions or security breaches. A common best practice is to test the policy in a non-production environment, such as a lab or a simulation, before enabling the policy in the production network. This way, the technician can verify the functionality and performance of the policy, and identify and resolve any issues or conflicts, without affecting the live network. Testing the policy in a non-production environment would prevent the issue of the 'deny any' policy causing several company servers to become unreachable, as the technician would be able to detect and correct the problem before applying the policy to the production network.
Documenting the new policy in a change request and submitting the request to change management is a good practice, but it would not prevent the issue by itself. Change management is a process that ensures that any changes to the network are authorized, documented, and communicated, but it does not guarantee that the changes are error-free or functional. The technician still needs to test the policy before implementing it.
Disabling any intrusion prevention signatures on the 'deny any' policy prior to enabling the new policy would not prevent the issue, and it could reduce the security of the network. Intrusion prevention signatures are patterns that identify malicious or unwanted traffic, and allow the firewall to block or alert on such traffic. Disabling these signatures would make the firewall less effective in detecting and preventing attacks, and it would not affect the reachability of the company servers.
Including an 'allow any' policy above the 'deny any' policy would not prevent the issue, and it would render the 'deny any' policy useless. A firewall policy is processed from top to bottom, and the first matching rule is applied. An 'allow any' policy would match any traffic and allow it to pass through the firewall, regardless of the source, destination, or protocol. This would negate the purpose of the 'deny any' policy, which is to block any traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. Moreover, an 'allow any' policy would create a security risk, as it would allow any unauthorized or malicious traffic to enter or exit the network. Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 204-205; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 2.1 - Network Security Devices, 8:00 - 10:00.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
Which of the following is thebestexplanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
- A. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation
- B. The user jsmith's account has been locked out.
- C. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account.
- D. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated toolsor scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker's IP address, reset ismith's password, and notify ismith of the incident. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1
NEW QUESTION # 29
An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location. Which of the following is the VPN protecting?
- A. Data in use
- B. Data sovereignty
- C. Data in transit
- D. Geographic restrictions
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air.
Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 145.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following control types is AUP an example of?
- A. Operational
- B. Technical
- C. Physical
- D. Managerial
Answer: D
Explanation:
An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is an example of a managerial control. Managerial controls are policies and procedures that govern an organization's operations, ensuring security through directives and rules. The AUP defines acceptable behavior and usage of company resources, setting guidelines for employees.
* Physical controls refer to security measures like locks, fences, or security guards.
* Technical controls involve security mechanisms such as firewalls or encryption.
* Operational controls are procedures for maintaining security, such as backup and recovery plans.
NEW QUESTION # 31
You are security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the Infecton and then deny each remaining hosts clean or infected.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Based on the logs, it seems that the host that originated the infection is 192.168.10.22. This host has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, which is unusual for a Windows service. It also has a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443, indicating that it is part of a botnet.
The firewall log shows that this host has been communicating with 10.10.9.18, which is another infected host on the engineering network. This host also has a suspicious process named svchost.exe running on port 443, and a large number of outbound connections to different IP addresses on port 443.
The other hosts on the R&D network (192.168.10.37 and 192.168.10.41) are clean, as they do not have any suspicious processes or connections.
NEW QUESTION # 32
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team. Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO's report?
- A. Insider threat
- B. Organized crime
- C. Nation-state
- D. Hacktivist
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17 1
NEW QUESTION # 33
A software development manager wants to ensure the authenticity of the code created by the company. Which of the following options is the most appropriate?
- A. Testing input validation on the user input fields
- B. Performing code signing on company-developed software
- C. Ensuring secure cookies are use
- D. Performing static code analysis on the software
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2
NEW QUESTION # 34
A company is planning to set up a SIEM system and assign an analyst to review the logs on a weekly basis.
Which of the following types of controls is the company setting up?
- A. Corrective
- B. Preventive
- C. Deterrent
- D. Detective
Answer: D
Explanation:
A detective control is a type of control that monitors and analyzes the events and activities in a system or a network, and alerts or reports when an incident or a violation occurs. A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is a tool that collects, correlates, and analyzes the logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, or applications, and provides a centralized view of the security status and incidents. An analyst who reviews the logs on a weekly basis can identify and investigate any anomalies, trends, or patterns that indicate a potential threat or a breach. A detective control can help the company to respond quickly and effectively to the incidents, and to improve its security posture and resilience. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-
701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 23. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3, page 14.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Lab Simulation 1
A systems administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN between two branch offices. Some of the settings have already been configured correctly. The systems administrator has been provided the following requirements as part of completing the configuration:
- Most secure algorithms should be selected
- All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN
- A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN
concentrators
Answer:
Explanation:
To configure the site-to-site VPN between the two branch offices according to the provided requirements, here are the detailed steps and settings that need to be applied to the VPN concentrators:
Requirements:
Most secure algorithms should be selected.
All traffic should be encrypted over the VPN.
A secret password will be used to authenticate the two VPN concentrators.
VPN Concentrator 1 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.10 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 2)
Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
VPN Concentrator 2 Configuration:
Phase 1:
Peer IP address: 5.5.5.5 (The IP address of VPN Concentrator 1)
Auth method: PSK (Pre-Shared Key)
Negotiation mode: MAIN
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
DH key group: 14
Phase 2:
Mode: Tunnel
Protocol: ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload)
Encryption algorithm: AES256
Hash algorithm: SHA256
Local network/mask: 192.168.2.0/24
Remote network/mask: 192.168.1.0/24
Summary:
Peer IP Address: Set to the IP address of the remote VPN concentrator.
Auth Method: PSK for using a pre-shared key.
Negotiation Mode: MAIN for the initial setup.
Encryption Algorithm: AES256, which is a strong and secure algorithm.
Hash Algorithm: SHA256, which provides strong hashing.
DH Key Group: 14 for strong Diffie-Hellman key exchange.
Phase 2 Protocol: ESP for encryption and integrity.
Local and Remote Networks: Properly configure the local and remote network addresses to match each branch office subnet.
By configuring these settings on both VPN concentrators, the site-to-site VPN will meet the requirements for strong security algorithms, encryption of all traffic, and authentication using a pre-shared key.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?
- A. Availability
- B. Non-repudiation
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Integrity
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure.
The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data.
Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption.
Availabilityis the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer's approved software repository?
- A. Resource reuse
- B. Memory injection
- C. Side loading
- D. Jailbreaking
Answer: C
Explanation:
Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer's approved software repository.
This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices. References = Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface TechnicalTraining, Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers - CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 - 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.
NEW QUESTION # 38
A legacy device is being decommissioned and is no longer receiving updates or patches. Which of the following describes this scenario?
- A. End of testing
- B. End of support
- C. End of life
- D. End of business
Answer: C
Explanation:
When a legacy device is no longer receiving updates or patches, it is considered to be at the end of life (EOL)
. This means the manufacturer has ceased support for the device, and it will no longer receive updates, security patches, or technical assistance. EOL devices pose security risks and are often decommissioned or replaced.
* End of support may seem similar but typically refers to the cessation of technical support, whereas EOL means the device is fully retired.
* End of business and End of testing do not apply in this context.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Various stakeholders are meeting to discuss their hypothetical roles and responsibilities in a specific situation, such as a security incident or major disaster. Which of the following best describes this meeting?
- A. Tabletop exercise
- B. Continuity of operations planning
- C. Simulation
- D. Penetration test
Answer: A
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based exercise where stakeholders gather to walk through the roles and responsibilities they would have during a specific situation, such as a security incident or disaster. This type of exercise is designed to identify gaps in planning and improve coordination among team members without the need for physical execution.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of security operations and disaster recovery planning.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following should a security administrator adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules?
- A. Change management procedure
- B. Disaster recovery plan
- C. Business continuity plan
- D. Incident response procedure
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A change management procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that a security administrator should adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules. A firewall is a device or software that can filter, block, or allow network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall rule is a statement that defines the criteria and action for a firewall to apply to a packet or a connection. For example, a firewall rule can allow or deny traffic based on the source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, or applications. Setting up a new set of firewall rules is a type of change that can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the network.
Therefore, a change management procedure is necessary to ensure that the change is planned, tested, approved, implemented, documented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. A change management procedure typically includes the following elements:
A change request that describes the purpose, scope, impact, and benefits of the change, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the change owner, implementer, and approver.
A change assessment that evaluates the feasibility, risks, costs, and dependencies of the change, as well as the alternatives and contingency plans.
A change approval that authorizes the change to proceed to the implementation stage, based on the criteria and thresholds defined by the change policy.
A change implementation that executes the change according to the plan and schedule, and verifies the results and outcomes of the change.
A change documentation that records the details and status of the change, as well as the lessons learned and best practices.
A change review that monitors and measures the performance and effectiveness of the change, and identifies any issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved.
A change management procedure is important for a security administrator to adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules, as it can help to achieve the following objectives:
Enhance the security posture and compliance of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are aligned with the security policies and standards, and that they do not introduce any vulnerabilities or conflicts.
Minimize the disruption and downtime of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are tested and validated before deployment, and that they do not affect the availability or functionality of the network services or applications.
Improve the efficiency and quality of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are optimized and updated according to the changing needs and demands of the network users and stakeholders, and that they do not cause any performance or compatibility issues.
Increase the accountability and transparency of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are documented and reviewed regularly, and that they are traceable and auditable by the relevant authorities and parties.
The other options are not correct because they are not related to the process of setting up a new set of firewall rules. A disaster recovery plan is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. An incident response procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that aim to contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from a security incident, such as a cyberattack, data breach, or malware infection. A business continuity plan is a set of strategies and actions that aim to maintain the essential functions and operations of an organization during and after a disruptive event, such as a pandemic, power outage, or civil unrest. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.3: Security Operations, video: Change Management (5:45).
NEW QUESTION # 41
A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?
- A. Packet captures
- B. Metadata
- C. Dashboard
- D. Vulnerability scans
Answer: C
Explanation:
A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. Reference = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.
NEW QUESTION # 42
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