CompTIA Certified SY0-701 Dumps Questions Valid SY0-701 Materials
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NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?
- A. Reputation damage
- B. Audit findings
- C. Fines
- D. Sanctions
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following security control types does an acceptable use policy best represent?
- A. Detective
- B. Corrective
- C. Preventive
- D. Compensating
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.
An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent them from exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.
Some examples of preventive controls are:
Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as:
Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software
Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3.
References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA
NEW QUESTION # 115
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities. The administrator also wants to apply the required access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
- A. SAML
- B. GPO
- C. RBAC
- D. ACL
Answer: C
Explanation:
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
- A. Cross-site scripting
- B. SQL injection
- C. Side loading
- D. Buffer overflow
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server. SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 117
A security operations center determines that the malicious activity detected on a server is normal. Which of the following activities describes the act of ignoring detected activity in the future?
- A. Quarantining
- B. Tuning
- C. Aggregating
- D. Archiving
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. Reference = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?
- A. CA
- B. CSR
- C. OCSP
- D. CRC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide:
Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1
NEW QUESTION # 119
Hotspot Question
You are a security administrator investigating a potential infection on a network.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each host and firewall. Review all logs to determine which host originated the infection and then identify if each remaining host is clean or infected.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 120
An employee receives a text message from an unknown number claiming to be the company's Chief Executive Officer and asking the employee to purchase several gift cards. Which of the following types of attacks does this describe?
- A. Phishing
- B. Smishing
- C. Pretexting
- D. Vishing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses text messages or common messaging apps to trick victims into clicking on malicious links or providing personal information. The scenario in the question describes a smishing attack that uses pretexting, which is a form of social engineering that involves impersonating someone else to gain trust or access. The unknown number claims to be the company's CEO and asks the employee to purchase gift cards, which is a common scam tactic. Vishing is a similar type of attack that uses phone calls or voicemails, while phishing is a broader term that covers any email-based attack. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 771; Smishing vs. Phishing: Understanding the Differences2
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
- A. SLA
- B. SOW
- C. MOA
- D. MOU
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
References:
Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under "About the exam", bullet point 3:
"Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance." CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: "Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider."
NEW QUESTION # 122
A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company's network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates. Which of the following should be done next?
- A. Initiate a penetration test.
- B. Rescan the network.
- C. Conduct an audit.
- D. Submit a report.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 123
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
- A. Key stretching
- B. Salting
- C. Data masking
- D. Steganography
Answer: B
Explanation:
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords fromproducing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References = Passwords technical overview Encryption, hashing, salting - what's the difference?
Salt (cryptography)
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following describes a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system?
- A. IDS
- B. SIEM
- C. SNMP
- D. DLP
Answer: B
Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management. It is a security alerting and monitoring tool that collects system, application, and network logs from multiple sources in a centralized system. SIEM can analyze the collected data, correlate events, generate alerts, and provide reports and dashboards. SIEM can also integrate with other security tools and support compliance requirements. SIEM helps organizations to detect and respond to cyber threats, improve security posture, and reduce operational costs. References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page
393. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Monitoring and Auditing, page 397.
NEW QUESTION # 125
A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool:
The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed.
The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months. Which of the following most likely occurred?
- A. A snapshot of the file system was taken.
- B. A rootkit was deployed.
- C. The end user changed the file permissions.
- D. A cryptographic collision was detected.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A rootkit is a type of malware that modifies or replaces system files or processes to hide its presence and activity. A rootkit can change the hash of the cmd.exe file, which is a command-line interpreter for Windows systems, to avoid detection by antivirus or file integrity monitoring tools. A rootkit can also grant the attacker remote access and control over the infected system, as well as perform malicious actions such as stealing data, installing backdoors, or launching attacks on other systems. A rootkit is one of the most difficult types of malware to remove, as it can persist even after rebooting or reinstalling the OS.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
- A. Right to audit clause
- B. Due diligence
- C. Rules of engagement
- D. Supply chain analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include the following elements:
* The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
* The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
* The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
* The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
* The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
* The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
* The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions.
Due diligence is the process of identifying and addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
References =
https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about-this-rules-of-engagement/
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
NEW QUESTION # 127
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data.
Which of the following should the administrator do first?
- A. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
- B. Apply classifications to the data.
- C. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
- D. Block access to cloud storage websites.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk.
Data classification is the first step in a data loss prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, thesecurity administrator can define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page
327.
NEW QUESTION # 128
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
Which of the following is the best explanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
- A. A keylogger is installed on [smith's workstation
- B. The user jsmith's account has been locked out.
- C. Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
- D. An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith's account.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker's IP address, reset ismith's password, and notify ismith of the incident.
NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?
- A. Recovery
- B. Analysis
- C. Preparation
- D. Lessons learned
Answer: C
Explanation:
Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident.
Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are:
Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the communications lead, and the legal advisor.
Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and reporting mechanisms.
Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders.
Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach.
Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools, and communication and collaboration tools.
Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the external support.
Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies, and the media.
Reference:
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6: Architecture and Design, Section 6.4: Secure Systems Design, p. 279-280 CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts, Sub-objective: Incident response, p. 16
NEW QUESTION # 130
Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
- A. RTOS
- B. Embedded systems
- C. Containers
- D. SCADA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations. Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 512 1
NEW QUESTION # 131
A company has begun labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. Which of the following security benefits do these actions provide? (Choose two.)
- A. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops.
- B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device.
- C. If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified.
- D. Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization.
- E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops.
- F. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Labeling all laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs can provide several security benefits for a company. Two of these benefits are:
* A: If a security incident occurs on the device, the correct employee can be notified. An asset inventory sticker is a label that contains a unique identifier for a laptop, such as a serial number, a barcode, or a QR code. By associating this identifier with an employee ID, the security team can easily track and locate the owner of the laptop in case of a security incident, such as a malware infection, a data breach, or a theft. This way, the security team can notify the correct employee about the incident, and provide them with the necessary instructions or actions to take, such as changing passwords, scanning for viruses, or reporting the loss. This can help to contain the incident, minimize the damage, and prevent further escalation.
* F: Company data can be accounted for when the employee leaves the organization. When an employee leaves the organization, the company needs to ensure that all the company data and assets are returned or deleted from the employee's laptop. By labeling the laptop with an asset inventory sticker and associating it with an employee ID, the company can easily identify and verify the laptop that belongs to the departing employee, and perform the appropriate data backup, wipe, or transfer procedures. This can help to protect the company data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse by the former employee or any other party.
The other options are not correct because they are not related to the security benefits of labeling laptops with asset inventory stickers and associating them with employee IDs. B. The security team will be able to send user awareness training to the appropriate device. User awareness training is a type of security education that aims to improve the knowledge and behavior of users regarding security threats and best practices. The security team can send user awareness training to the appropriate device by using the email address, username, or IP address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. C. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens. Software MFA tokens are a type of multi-factor authentication that uses a software application to generate a one-time password or a push notification for verifying the identity of a user. Users can be mapped to their devices when configuring software MFA tokens by using the device ID, phone number, or email address of the device, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. D. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops. User-based firewall policies are a type of firewall rules that apply to specific users or groups of users, regardless of the device or location they use to access the network. User-based firewall policies can be correctly targeted to the appropriate laptops by using the username, domain, or certificate of the user, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. E. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that simulates a real-world attack on a network or system to identify and exploit vulnerabilities. When conducting penetration testing, the security team will be able to target the desired laptops by using the IP address, hostname, or MAC address of the laptop, not the asset inventory sticker or the employee ID. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 17. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.4: Asset Management, video: Asset Inventory (6:12).
NEW QUESTION # 132
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
- A. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
- B. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
- C. Install endpoint management software on all systems.
- D. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1
NEW QUESTION # 133
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